**Modern English: "none" is a pronoun** In contemporary usage, *none* replaces a noun phrase. It doesn't modify a noun directly. - *None of the students came* → *none* = pronoun standing in for "no students" - *I want none* → *none* = pronoun for "no amount/number" - *No students came* → *no* took over the determiner/adjective job Saying *none effect* or *none occasion* sounds straight out of Shakespeare today. We use *no effect*, *no occasion* instead. **Historical/Traditional grammar: "none" was an adjective/determiner** You're spot-on about Nesfield and older grammars. Middle English and Early Modern English used *none* before nouns, especially before vowels or *h*: - *none other gods* — KJV, Acts 4:12 - *I can find none occasion of death in him* — KJV, Luke 23:22 - *none effect* — Romans 3:3, KJV This was the uninflected form of Old English *nān* = *ne* "not" + *ān* "one". The *no* vs *none* distinction used to be phonological: *none* before vowels, *no* before consonants. That rule eroded, and *no* won out as the attributive form. So two correct answers depending on your frame: | Framework | Is "none" a quantitative adjective? | | --- | --- | | Modern descriptive grammar | No, it's a pronoun. *No* is the determiner. | | Traditional/Nesfield/KJV-era grammar | Yes, when used attributively. Now archaic. | -- 傳道書1:5 日出，日落，緊緊走倒轉伊所出來的所在。 根據台日大辭典，【日-出(變調+本調)】【日落(本調+本調)】【月出(本調+本調)】。 https://sutian.moe.edu.tw/zh-hant/su/24199/ --

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