作者kazumi6533 (patrick)
看板CFAiafeFSA
标题Re: [问题] 一题CFA lv 1的问题
时间Mon Nov 3 01:40:15 2008
※ 引述《londor (I, 萝卜)》之铭言:
: Bond A has an embedded option, a nominal yield spread to Tresuries of 1.6%,
: a Z-spread of 1.4%, and an OAS of 1.2%. Bond B is identical to Bond A
: except that it does not have the embedded option, has a nominal yield
: spread to Treasuries of 1.4%, a Z-spread of 1.3%, an OAS of 1.3%. The most
: likely option embedded in Bond A, and the bond that is the better value,
: are:
: A. Put, Bond A
: B. Put, Bond B
: C. Call, Bond A
: D. Call, Bond B
: 答案是B,它说Since the OAS is less than the Z-spread for Bond A, the effect
: of the embedded option is to decrease the required yield, so it must be a
: put option.
: 不对吧,Option cost = Z-spread - OAS,
: Callable Bond: Option cost >0 , Z-spread > OAS
: Puttable Bond: Option cost <0 , Z-spread < OAS
: 这样才对吧? 所以答案应该是D
: 请赐教教教教~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~教可教非常教~~~~~~~~~
: 感激不尽~~
OAS is used when a bond has embedded options.
a callable bond, for example, must have a greater yield than an identical
option-free bond.
OAS是把option 的价格加进去之後所得到的spread, 一个call option会使得
债券价格变低,所以spread 会变大,所以相较一个option-free 的bond 的spread
应该是要比较大的,所以我觉得这题应该是put option才对 (B)
有错还请不吝订正,谢谢
--
※ 发信站: 批踢踢实业坊(ptt.cc)
◆ From: 59.112.40.94
1F:推 fn21nfy:OAS是把option踢掉之後的利差吧 而且一个call会让价格下跌 11/04 23:37